Matthew 21:14-19; Psalm 8:2 – Did Jesus Receive Praise as Being Yahweh?

Matthew 21:14 The blind and the lame came to him in the temple, and he healed them.
Matthew 21:15 But when the chief priests and the scribes saw the wonderful things that he did, and the children who were crying in the temple and saying, “Hosanna to the son of David!” they were moved with indignation,
Matthew 21:16 and said to him, “Do you hear what these are saying?” Jesus said to them, “Yes. Did you never read, ‘Out of the mouth of babes and nursing babies you have perfected praise?'”

Psalm 8:2 From the lips of babes and infants you have established strength, Because of your adversaries, that you might silence the enemy and the avenger.

Psalm 8:1 Out of the mouth of babes and sucklings hast thou perfected praise, because of thine enemies; that thou mightest put down the enemy and avenger. — Brenton, From the Christianized Septuagint.

Unless otherwise noted, all scriptural quotations are from the World English Bible translation, with the Holy Name restored at appropriate places in the New Testament.

Matthew 21:14-19 along with Psalm 8:2 is sometimes presented by those who believe in the trinity doctrine (as well as some others) as proof that Jesus is Yahweh (Jehovah) of the Old Testament. Evidently the assumption is that Jesus was applying Psalm 8:2 to himself, with the thought that the multitude and the children mentioned were giving praise to Jesus. Actually, we are not given any reason from what Matthew wrote that should lead us to assume that Jesus was here claiming to be Yahweh, the unipersonal ELOHIM who anointed Jesus.– Psalm 45:7; Isaiah 61:1; Acts 2:36; Related Scriptures: Mark 11:7-10; Luke 19:36-38; John 12:12,13.

Matthew 21:16
kai eipan autw akoueis ti houtoi legousin
2532 1511_7 0846_5 0191 5101 3778_91 3004
ho de ieesous legei autois nai oudepote
3588 1161 2424 3004 0846_93 3483 3763
anegnwte hoti ek stomatos neepiwn kai
0314 3754 1537 4750 3516 2532
theelazontwn kateertisw ainon
2337 2675 0136
Westcott & Hort Interlinear

The scripture does not say that anyone was giving “praise” to Jesus, nor is it said that Jesus was applying the words of Psalm 8:2 to himself. The multitude claimed Jesus as the son of David, and as the one promised who was to come in the name of Yahweh; in so doing they were saying that the son of David was sent by Yahweh, not that he was Yahweh. They claimed Jesus to the prophet sent by Yahweh.– Deuteronomy 18:15-20; Psalm 118:26; Isaiah 61:1; Acts 3:13-26.

Contrary to what many may think, “Hosanna” does not mean “praise”, but is a form of supplication to God that the one being spoken of may save/deliver the people, or that one spoken of may be saved, delivered or be victorious.

The Greek word for Hosanna is formed from two Hebrew words, Strong’s #3467 (often transliterated as Yasha’), meaning:

to save, be saved, be delivered

to be liberated, be saved, be delivered
to be saved (in battle), be victorious
to save, deliver
to save from moral troubles
to give victory to

The second Hebrew word that is used to form the Greek word for Hosanna is Strong’s #4994, often transliterated as Na’. This word means:

(we) pray, now, please

used in entreaty or exhortation

It is, therefore, as it is used in Matthew 21, a form of prayer to God that the one being spoken of may be victorious. In effect, it means, as used in Matthew 21: “Give victory to the Son of David”, and “Give victory by means of the Most High”. Thus, Hosanna is directed to the God of Jesus.

The recognition of Jesus as the Son of David, however, in effect, gives praise to the God of Jesus, since it was the God of Jesus who sent his Son as the promised Son of David, the Messiah, the Anointed of Yahweh, the one whom Yahweh has made both Lord and Christ.

Thus, the Greek word that is rendered as Hosanna is given the meaning:

be propitious

It should be obvious, however, that Jesus, in quoting Psalm 8:2, attributed his God and Father as the One who perfected such praise out of the mouth of babes; Jesus did not say that he — Jesus — was the one who perfected that praise. Thus, it would still be Yahweh, in whose name the Son of the Man David came, who would effect such praise, even if the praise was given to His Son. All that is done to the Son is the same as being done to the God and Father of the Son. Likewise, all that is done to the disciples of the Son is the same doing such to the Son Himself.(Matthew 18:5; John 12:26; 14:21-23; 15:23) All praise given to the Son, and all the Son does, is to the glory of the God and Father of the Son.(John 5:23; 13:31; 14:13; Philippians 2:11; 1 Peter 1:3,21) In none of this is there anything that means that the Son is the same sentient being as his God and Father, nor does it mean that the disciples of Jesus are the same sentient being as the Son of God, nor does Jesus’ reference to what his God does as recorded in Psalm 8:2 mean that Jesus was claiming to be his God.

Nevertheless, since Jesus did come in the name of Yahweh, if he was claiming to be Yahweh, this would mean that he came in his own name. It should be apparent that Jesus did not come in his own name, but in the name of Yahweh his God and Father.– Exodus 3:14,15; Deuteronomy 18:15-19; Matthew 21:9; 23:39; Mark 11:9,10; Luke 13:35; 19:38; John 5:43; 12:13; Acts 3:13-26; Ephesians 1:3; Hebrews 1:1,2; 1 Peter 1:3.

Do we not read that all is of the “one God” through the one Lord (1 Corinthians 8:6), and that the one God — the universal ELOHIM of Psalm 45:7 — has made Jesus both Lord and Christ (Anointed One)?– Isaiah 61:1; Acts 2:36.

Do we not also find, in the Old Testament, that Yahweh uses various servants but Yahweh is given the credit for their actions, since he was the directing force?— Exodus 3:10,12; 12:17; 18:10; Numbers 16:28; Judges 2:6,18; 3:9,10; 6:34; 11:29; 13:24,25; 14:6,19; 15:14,18; 16:20,28-30, 2 Kings 4:27; Isaiah 43:11, 45:1-6; etc.

Do we not additionally find that the unipersonal ELOHIM of Psalm 45:7, sanctified his Son and sent him into the world (John 3:17; 5:30,36; 6:38,57; 8:42; 10:36; 14:6; 17:3,8,21; Romans 8:3; Galatians 4:4; 1 John 4:9,10,14)? Should not the reasonable scriptural conclusion be that whatever was said or done to the one sent is the same as having been said to the unipersonal ELOHIM who sent Jesus, for as Jesus said, “Whoever rejects me rejects him who sent me”? (Luke 10:16; See also Matthew 10:32,33; John 8:19; 12:26; 15:23,24; 1 John 2:23) Isn’t it true that all the honor that is given to Jesus is to the glory of the God and Father of Jesus, “that in all things God may be glorified through Jesus Christ”?– Matthew 9:8; 15:31; Luke 17:16; 13:13; 17:15; 23:47; John 5:23; 13:31,32; 21:19; Ephesians 1:17; Romans 15:6; Philippians 2:11; 1 Peter 4:11.

Doesn’t “God” in 1 Peter 4:11 refers to one individual, not three, since that one individual is distinguished from “Jesus Christ” through whom “God” is glorified?

As related to this, we should note that Jesus himself was in need of a savior to be delivered from death.– Hebrews 5:7.

We certainly find nothing in Matthew 21 about a triune God, or that Jesus is a person of the God of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, except that one use the spirit of human imagination so as to add such to what was said.

Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus.– Ephesians 1:3; 1 Peter 1:3.

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